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User Name Thread Name Subject Posted
Azizi BS: BNP on question time (285* d) RE: BS: BNP on question time 25 Oct 09

Backwoodsman, in the 19th century and earlier, did English people refer to those who were not part of the nobiiity as ladies?

Also, in the 19th century and earlier, did Wnite people refer to Black women and other Women of Color as ladies (except for "ladies of the night" meaning "prostitutes"?

I don't think the first point is a matter of two nations divided by a common language (at least with regard to the USA) because we don't as a rule use nobility titles.

But if English people referred to Black women as ladies (and used Mrs and their last name while addressing them instead of using Aunt and a first name (their actual first name or a first name like "Jemima" or "Lizzie" that was used for all Black women) then that does appear to be different practices than those that occurred in the USA during the same time periods.

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